60+ Biotechnology MCQ for NEET with Answers Pdf
Biotechnology is a comprehensive discipline that combines knowledge and technology in the fields of biology, chemistry, engineering, and informatics, aiming to use biochemistry, physiology, and genetics to develop new technologies and products. The goal of biotechnology is to apply and improve the basic principles of biology to solve problems in the fields of medicine, agriculture, environment, and industry, and to create products and services that are beneficial to human society. Biotechnology has a wide range of applications, some of the important areas include:
Medical biotechnology: By exploiting the properties of organisms, cells, and molecules, new drugs, vaccines, and diagnostic methods are developed to treat and prevent diseases. Agricultural biotechnology: apply genetic engineering and genetic improvement technology to improve crop yield and quality, improve resistance to diseases and insect pests, and develop transgenic plants and agricultural biological products. Industrial biotechnology: use the characteristics of organisms such as microorganisms, enzymes, and cells to produce biofuels, bioplastics, enzyme preparations, and other renewable energy and sustainable development products. Environmental biotechnology: the use of microorganisms and other living organisms to purify water bodies, treat waste and pollutants, develop environmentally friendly solutions, and promote sustainable environmental protection and resource management.
Biotechnology has great potential to advance science, medicine, and industry. Through innovative research and application, biotechnology is expected to improve the status quo in important fields such as human health, food safety, and environmental sustainability, and provide broader possibilities for future innovation and development. For those interested in biotech news and job opportunities, check out Shila Biotech.
Biotechnology MCQ for NEET with Answers
Here Below we provide a list of Biotechnology MCQ for NEET outlined by experts who suggest the most important MCQ for various Biotechnology competitive exams. The below MCQ takes you directly to the corresponding topic where the detailed article along with MCQs is provided for a smooth, effortless searching experience. Before going ahead to solve Biotechnology NEET question papers or taking up mock tests, make sure you cover the basic concepts of Biotechnology and solve some sample questions before appearing in Exam. MCQ on Biotechnology with Answers Pdf listed below ranges from the basic to the most advanced Questions, thereby having you covered. Have a look at the list of Biotechnology MCQ for NEET below:
1. Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes?
(a) X phage
(b) Retrovirus
(c) Ti plasmid
(d) PBR 322
Answer: b
Explanation: Retroviruses can efficiently integrate DNA into human lymphocytes, making them ideal vectors in gene therapy.
2. Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four-year-old girl with Adenosine Deaminase deficiency (ADA)?
(a) Gene therapy
(b) Chemotherapy
(c) Immunotherapy
(d) Radiation therapy
Answer: a
Explanation: It was the first successful application of gene therapy in humans for treating ADA deficiency.
3. The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by________
(a) Phosphodiester bond
(b) Covalent bond
(c) Disulphide bridges
(d) Hydrogen bonds
Answer: c
Explanation: Insulin’s A and B chains are held together by disulphide bridges, stabilizing its structure.
4. Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita?
(a) Leaf
(b) Root
(c) Stem
(d) Flower
Answer: b
Explanation: Meloidogyne incognita is a root-knot nematode that infects plant roots.
5. In Bt Cotton, the Bt toxin present in plant tissue as protoxin is converted into active toxin due to__________
(a) Alkaline pH of the insect gut
(b) Acidic pH of the insect gut
(c) Action of gut microorganism
(d) Presence of conversion factors in the insect gut
Answer: a
Explanation: The protoxin becomes active in the alkaline environment of the insect gut.
6. The first human hormone produced by recombinant DNA technology is______
(a) Insulin
(b) Thyroxin
(c) Estrogen
(d) Progesterone
Answer: a
Explanation: Humulin, a recombinant human insulin, was the first hormone produced using rDNA technology.
7. Which of the following Bt crops is being grown in India by the farmers?
(a) Brinjal
(b) Maize
(c) Soyabean
(d) Cotton
Answer: d
Explanation: Bt Cotton is widely cultivated in India for its resistance to bollworm.
8. Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have been developed by the introduction of DNA that is produced in the host cells__________
(a) Both sense and anti-sense RNA
(b) A particular hormone
(c) An antifeedant
(d) A toxic protein
Answer: a
Explanation: RNA interference using both sense and antisense RNA silences the target gene in nematodes.
9. The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating__________
(a) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Chickenpox
(c) Rheumatoid arthritis
(d) Adenosine Deaminase deficiency
Answer: d
Explanation: Gene therapy was first used clinically to treat ADA deficiency in 1990.
10. Which body of the Government of India regulates GM research and safety of introducing GM organisms for public services?
(a) Bio-safety committee
(b) Indian Council for Agriculture Research
(c) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
(d) Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation
Answer: c
Explanation: GEAC under MoEFCC regulates GM organism release in India.
11. Maximum number of existing transgenic animals of_________
(a) Fish
(b) Cow
(c) Pig
(d) Mice
Answer: d
Explanation: Mice are the most commonly used transgenic animals for genetic research.
12. Genetic engineering has been successfully used for producing:
(a) Transgenic mice for testing the safety of polio vaccine before use in humans
(b) Transgenic models for studying new treatments for certain cardiac diseases
(c) Transgenic cow – Rosie which produces high-fat milk for making ghee
(d) Animals like bulls for farm work as they have a superpower
Answer: a
Explanation: Transgenic mice are used in testing vaccine safety and efficacy.
13. Transgenic animals are those which have________
(a) Foreign DNA in some of its cells
(b) Foreign DNA in all its cells
(c) Foreign RNA in all its cells
(d) DNA and RNA both in the cells
Answer: b
Explanation: In transgenic animals, every cell carries and expresses the foreign gene.
14. Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organizations without authorization from the concerned country and its people is called_______
(a) Biodegradation
(b) Bio-infringement
(c) Biopiracy
(d) Bioexploitation
Answer: c
Explanation: Biopiracy is unauthorized commercial exploitation of biological resources.
15. The silencing of mRNA has been used in producing transgenic plants resistant to:
(a) Boll worms
(b) White rusts
(c) Nematodes
(d) Bacterial blights
Answer: c
Explanation: RNA interference technique helps silence genes in nematodes.
16. What is the criterion for DNA fragment’s movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis?
(a) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves
(b) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves
(c) Positively charged fragments move to the farther end
(d) Negatively charged fragments do not move
Answer: b
Explanation: Smaller DNA fragments migrate faster through the gel matrix.
17. A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cells is known as___________
(a) Selectable marker
(b) Vector
(c) Plasmid
(d) Structural gene
Answer: a
Explanation: Selectable markers help identify recombinant cells containing the gene of interest.
18. Which one of the given options correctly identifies its certain component(s)?
(a) Ori – original restriction enzyme
(b) Rop – Reduced osmotic pressure
(c) Hind I, EcoR I – selectable markers
(d) AmpR, tetR – antibiotic resistance genes
Answer: d
Explanation: AmpR and tetR confer resistance to antibiotics and are used as markers.
19. There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI. What does ‘co’ part in it stand for?
(a) Coelom
(b) Coli
(c) Colon
(d) Coenzyme
Answer: b
Explanation: EcoRI is derived from Escherichia coli — ‘co’ stands for coli.
20. DNA strand sequence:
5′ — GAATTC — 3′
3′ — CTTAAG — 5′
What is special about it?
(a) Replication completed
(b) Deletion mutation
(c) Start codon at the 5′ end
(d) Palindromic sequence of base pairs
Answer: d
Explanation: Palindromic sequences read the same on both strands in opposite directions.
21. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualized after staining with__________
(a) Bromophenol blue
(b) Acetocarmine
(c) Aniline blue
(d) Ethidium bromide
Answer: d
Explanation: Ethidium bromide intercalates between DNA bases and fluoresces under UV light.
22. Which of the following restriction enzymes produces blunt ends?
(a) Eco RV
(b) Sal I
(c) Hind III
(d) Xho I
Answer: a
Explanation: EcoRV cuts DNA to produce blunt ends without overhanging bases.
23. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined using_____________
(a) Eco RI
(b) Taq polymerase
(c) Ligase
(d) Polymerase II
Answer: c
Explanation: DNA ligase seals the sugar-phosphate backbone forming recombinant DNA.
24. Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmid?
(a) Single-stranded
(b) Independent replication
(c) Circular structure
(d) Small, circular double-stranded
Answer: a
Explanation: Plasmids are double-stranded circular DNA, not single-stranded.
25. Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are_____________
(a) T-DNA
(b) BAC vectors
(c) T/C cloning vector
(d) Expression vector
Answer: b
Explanation: BACs (Bacterial Artificial Chromosomes) can carry large DNA inserts.
26. DNA fragments generated by restriction endonucleases can be separated by_________
(a) Centrifugation
(b) Polymerase Chain Reaction
(c) Electrophoresis
(d) Restriction mapping
Answer: c
Explanation: Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments by size.
27. Biolistics (Gene gun) is suitable for_____________
(a) Disarming pathogen vectors
(b) Transformation of plant cells
(c) Joining of DNA Vector
(d) DNA Fingerprinting
Answer: b
Explanation: Biolistics delivers DNA-coated particles directly into plant cells.
28. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is____________
(a) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(b) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
(c) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
(d) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
Answer: d
Explanation: PCR cycles involve denaturation (94–96°C), annealing (50–65°C), and extension (72°C).
29. The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called__________
(a) Upstream processing
(b) Downstream processing
(c) Bioprocessing
(d) Postproduction processing
Answer: b
Explanation: Downstream processing involves isolation, purification, and formulation of the product.
30. Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing?
(a) Separation
(b) Preservation
(c) Purification
(d) Expression
Answer: d
Explanation: Expression of proteins occurs upstream; downstream includes steps after synthesis.
31. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid using
(a) Eco RI
(b) Polymerase III
(c) Taq polymerase
(d) Ligase
Answer: d
Explanation: DNA ligase joins DNA fragments by forming phosphodiester bonds.
32. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for
(a) Purification of the product
(b) Addition of preservatives to the product
(c) Availability of oxygen throughout the process
(d) Ensures aerobic conditions in the culture vessels
Answer: c
Explanation: Stirring ensures even oxygen distribution and nutrient mixing.
33. The Taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from
(a) Thiobacillus ferroxidans
(b) Bacillus subtilis
(c) Pseudomonas putida
(d) Thermus aquaticus
Answer: d
Explanation: Thermus aquaticus is a heat-resistant bacterium; its enzyme works at high PCR temperatures.
34. Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?
(a) DNase I
(b) Hind II
(c) Protease
(d) RNase
Answer: b
Explanation: Hind II is a restriction enzyme that cuts DNA at specific sequences.
35. The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of
(a) Restriction enzymes
(b) Probes
(c) Selectable markers
(d) Ligases
Answer: a
Explanation: Restriction enzymes recognize specific DNA sequences and cut them.
36. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR?
(a) It is used to ligate introduced DNA
(b) It serves as a selectable marker
(c) It is isolated from a virus
(d) It remains active at high temperature
Answer: d
Explanation: Taq DNA polymerase withstands high temperatures in PCR cycles.
37. Which one of the following is a case of wrong matching?
(a) Somatic hybridization – Fusion of two diverse cells
(b) Vector DNA – Site for tRNA synthesis
(c) Micropropagation – In vitro production of plants
(d) Callus – Unorganized mass of cells
Answer: b
Explanation: Vectors are used for DNA transfer, not for tRNA synthesis.
38. Agarose extracted from seaweeds is used in
(a) Spectrophotometry
(b) Tissue culture
(c) PCR
(d) Gel electrophoresis
Answer: d
Explanation: Agarose forms a gel matrix to separate DNA by size.
39. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals that contain insecticidal protein. This protein
(a) Binds with epithelial cells of the insect midgut, killing it
(b) Is coded by several genes including cry
(c) Is activated by acidic pH
(d) Does not kill the carrier bacterium
Answer: a
Explanation: The toxin binds to midgut cells and causes lysis in pests.
40. Which one of the following is now being commercially produced by biotechnological procedures?
(a) Nicotine
(b) Quinine
(c) Morphine
(d) Insulin
Answer: d
Explanation: Insulin is mass-produced using recombinant DNA technology.
41. Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are
(a) Long fiber and resistance to aphids
(b) Medium yield and beetle pest resistance
(c) High yield and protein crystals toxic to dipterans
(d) High yield and resistance to bollworms
Answer: d
Explanation: Bt cotton is engineered to resist bollworms.
42. A new variety of rice was patented by a foreign company, though such varieties have been present in India. This is related to
(a) Lerma Rajo
(b) Co-667
(c) Sharbati Sonora
(d) Basmati
Answer: d
Explanation: The case of Basmati rice is a classic example of biopiracy.
43. Who defined Biotechnology?
(a) European Federation of Biotechnology (EFB)
(b) NCBI
(c) NIH
(d) NCCS
Answer: a
Explanation: EFB defined biotechnology as the integrated use of biology and engineering.
44. The first transgenic plant to be produced is
(a) Brinjal
(b) Tobacco
(c) Rice
(d) Cotton
Answer: b
Explanation: Tobacco was the first genetically modified plant.
45. _____ is a product of biotechnology.
(a) Bacteria
(b) Skin
(c) Vaccine
(d) Plants
Answer: c
Explanation: Vaccines like Hepatitis B are produced using recombinant biotechnology.
46. Which bacterium is used in the production of insulin by genetic engineering?
(a) Saccharomyces
(b) Rhizobium
(c) Escherichia
(d) Mycobacterium
Answer: c
Explanation: E. coli is commonly used to produce recombinant insulin.
47. Bacteria protect themselves from viruses by fragmenting viral DNA with
(a) Ligase
(b) Endonuclease
(c) Exonuclease
(d) Gyrase
Answer: b
Explanation: Restriction endonucleases cut viral DNA, providing bacterial defense.
48. Klenow fragment is derived from
(a) DNA Ligase
(b) DNA Pol-I
(c) DNA Pol-II
(d) Reverse Transcriptase
Answer: b
Explanation: The Klenow fragment is a large fragment of DNA polymerase I used in molecular biology.
49. Making multiple copies of the desired DNA template is called
(a) Cloning
(b) Transferring
(c) rDNA technology
(d) Genetic engineering
Answer: a
Explanation: Cloning is the amplification of a specific DNA fragment.
50. Southern blotting is
(a) Attachment of probes to DNA fragments
(b) Transfer of DNA fragments to nitrocellulose membrane
(c) Comparison of DNA fragments
(d) Electrophoresis of membrane-bound DNA
Answer: b
Explanation: Southern blotting involves transfer of DNA from gel to a membrane.
51. PCR technique was invented by
(a) Karry Mullis
(b) Boyer
(c) Sanger
(d) Cohn
Answer: a
Explanation: Kary Mullis developed PCR in 1983, revolutionizing molecular biology.
52. Plasmids are used as cloning vectors because
(a) Can be multiplied in culture
(b) Self-replicate in bacterial cells
(c) Multiplied in labs with enzymes
(d) Replicate outside cells
Answer: b
Explanation: Plasmids replicate independently within host bacterial cells.
53. RNA interference helps in
(a) Cell proliferation
(b) Micropropagation
(c) Cell defense
(d) Cell differentiation
Answer: c
Explanation: RNAi silences specific genes, defending cells against unwanted gene expression.
54. ELISA is
(a) Radiolabeled antibody usage
(b) Use of RBCs
(c) Complement-mediated cell lysis
(d) Enzyme-substrate reaction giving colored product
Answer: d
Explanation: ELISA uses enzyme-linked antibodies to produce color change in presence of antigen.
55. ______ organism’s plasmid was used for the construction of the first recombinant DNA.
(a) Cyanobacteria
(b) Bacillus subtilis
(c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(d) Salmonella typhimurium
Answer: b
Explanation: The first rDNA was made using plasmid from Bacillus subtilis.
56. A transgenic plant is a
(a) Plant with gene from another plant or species
(b) Improved agronomic plant
(c) Mutated plant
(d) None of these
Answer: a
Explanation: Transgenic plants carry foreign genes from other organisms.
57. Biotechnologies using biological systems for industrial applications are called
(a) Yellow
(b) Blue
(c) Green
(d) White
Answer: d
Explanation: White biotechnology involves industrial bioprocesses like fermentation.
58. Choose the wrong statement
(a) Time to get a transgenic plant ≈ 1 year
(b) Bt kills maize larvae
(c) First transgenic plant made in 1984
(d) Transgene insertion site is unpredictable
Answer: a
Explanation: Developing a transgenic plant often takes several years.
59. Choose the wrong statement
(a) DNA hybridization requires sequence similarity
(b) Circular/linear DNA with N sites gives N/N+1 fragments
(c) Recombinant cloning means selecting correct colonies
(d) EcoRI cutting 4 fragments means 4 sites
Answer: a
Explanation: Hybridization requires complementarity, not just similarity.
60. First step in gene cloning is
(a) DNA isolation
(b) Culture and insertion
(c) Plasmid cutting
(d) All of these
Answer: a
Explanation: Gene cloning begins with isolating the target DNA.
61. In macromolecules, a ‘domain’ describes
(a) Non-coding RNA
(b) Protein’s structural/functional region
(c) Cell compartment
(d) Intron between exons
Answer: b
Explanation: Domains are distinct parts of a protein with specific roles.
62. Primary protein sequence lacks info about
(a) Post-translational modifications
(b) Membrane topology
(c) 3D structure
(d) Transcription rate
Answer: d
Explanation: Transcription rate is determined at the gene/DNA level, not protein sequence.
63. Mitochondrial proteins
(a) Are made in cytoplasm, imported into mitochondria
(b) Use N-terminal signal cleaved inside
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these
Answer: c
Explanation: Most mitochondrial proteins are cytosolic and imported post-translationally.
64. Choose the wrong statement about ER proteins
(a) GPI anchor is added in ER
(b) Mannoses added in ER
(c) Galactose not added in ER
(d) O-glycosylation starts in ER
Answer: e
Explanation: O-glycosylation begins in the Golgi, not ER.
65. Choose the wrong proposition on glycosylation
(a) N-acetylglucosamine attaches to asparagine
(b) O-glycosylation adds sugar via nucleotide-activated residues
(c) Glycosylation involves Asn, Ser, Thr, Hydroxylysine
(d) Glycosylation decreases solubility
Answer: d
Explanation: Glycosylation increases protein solubility and stability.
Above MCQ for Biotechnology will help you to prepare for NEET, CET, SET, and CSIR NET Entrance Exams. With over 60 Biotechnology MCQ questions covering important topics of Biotechnology, this will help you with your understanding and revision. These Biotechnology MCQ for NEET are categorized into three difficulty levels to let you practice systematically. Once you are done with easy questions, you can move to the difficult ones to test the depth of your studies during your revision phase. Since this is a Free MCQ, you need not think too much before practicing it online. We wish the information prevailing above regarding the MCQ on Biotechnology with Answers Pdf Questions has helped you during your preparation. If you need any assistance, feel free to ask us and we will get back to you at the soonest. Stay connected with our site for info on Multiple Choice Type Questions.