MCQ of BSc Nursing Entrance Exam

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MCQ of BSc Nursing Entrance Exam

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MCQ of BSc Nursing Entrance Exam

1. What is the state of brain death?
a. There is miosis.
b. Slow waves are seen on the electroencephalogram.
c. Spontaneous breathing has stopped.
d. Painful stimuli produce an escape response.
Answer: c. Spontaneous breathing has stopped.
Expaination:
Brain death is a state in which all brain function, including the brain stem, has irreversibly ceased.

Read: MCQ for MSc Nursing Entrance Exam with Answers Pdf

2. Which is true about antibiotics?
a. It is effective against viruses.
b. It is ineffective when administered orally.
c. The emergence of resistant bacteria is a problem.
d. It does not affect the normal bacterial flora.
Answer: c. The emergence of resistant bacteria is a problem.
Expaination:
Bacteria that are resistant to antibiotics are called drug-resistant bacteria, and there is a risk that multidrug-resistant Pseudomonas aeruginosa and methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, etc., may cause opportunistic infections that are pathogenic in susceptible individuals with weakened resistance in hospitals.

3. Which of the following decreases in middle-aged men?
a. estrogen
b. Prolactin
c. Aldosterone
d. testosterone
Answer: d. Testosterone
Expaination:
As men age, testicular function declines, leading to a decrease in the male hormone ( testosterone ), making them more susceptible to decreased sperm count and erectile dysfunction.

4. Which viral hepatitis is transmitted orally?
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D
Answer: a. Hepatitis A
Expaination:
Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted through oral infections such as contaminated food or water.

5. Which cells are involved in immune function?
a. platelet
b. White blood cells
c. Reticulocytes
d. Mature red blood cells
Answer: b. White blood cells
Expaination:
White blood cells have an immune function that eliminates bacteria, viruses, and other organisms that invade the body . Neutrophils, which make up the majority of white blood cells, are the main biological defense mechanism that protects the body from bacterial and fungal infections.

6. What is the purpose of a DC defibrillator?
a. Increased blood pressure
b. Promotes breathing
c. Increased body temperature
d. Restoration of sinus rhythm
Answer: d. Restoration of sinus rhythm
Expaination:
A direct current defibrillator (DC) is a device used in medical institutions to treat arrhythmias by administering electric shocks. Sinus rhythm is the rhythm of the sinus node, which generates the electrical signals that stimulate the myocardium, and DC defibrillators aim to restore sinus rhythm.

7. What is of concern during puberty when secondary sexual characteristics begin to appear?
a. Distinguishing between good and evil
b. Balancing work and family life
c. Changes in your own body
d. Securing and maintaining economic strength
Answer: c. Changes in your own body
Expaination:
Secondary sexual characteristics , such as growth in height, occur during puberty, a time when people become interested in changes to their own bodies.

8. What is the time of birth that constitutes full term?
a. 35 weeks 0 days to 39 weeks 6 days of pregnancy
b. 36 weeks 0 days to 40 weeks 6 days pregnant
c. 37 weeks 0 days to 41 weeks 6 days pregnant
d. 38 weeks 0 days to 42 weeks 6 days pregnant
Answer: c. 37 weeks 0 days to 41 weeks 6 days of pregnancy
Expaination:
A birth between 22 weeks 0 days and 36 weeks 6 days of pregnancy is called a preterm birth , a birth between 37 weeks 0 days and 41 weeks 6 days of pregnancy is called a full-term birth , and a birth after 42 weeks 0 days of pregnancy is called a postterm birth.

9. Which is the most appropriate puncture site for venous blood collection in adults?
a. Axillary vein
b. Upper arm vein
c. Brachiocephalic vein
d. Median cubital vein
Answer: d. Median cubital vein
Expaination:
When drawing blood from adults , veins in the forearm are often used, such as the cephalic vein, median cubital vein , or basilic vein.

10. Prostaglandins are chemical substances thought to
a) Reduce the perception of pain.
b) Inhibit transmission of pain.
c) Inhibit transmission of noxious stimuli
d)Increase sensitivity of pain receptors.
Answer: d Increase sensitivity of pain receptors.
Explanation:
Prostaglandins are believed to increase sensitivity to pain receptors by enhancing the pain-provoking effect of bradykinin.

11. What is the normal range for fetal heart rate during late pregnancy?
a) 100-140 beats per minute
b) 110-160 beats per minute
c) 60-100 beats per minute
d) 130-170 beats per minute
Answer: b) 110-160 beats per minute
Explanation:
The normal fetal heart rate range during late pregnancy is typically between 110 and 160 beats per minute. This range can indicate a healthy, well-oxygenated fetus.

12. Which health problems are caused by drinking alcohol?
a) Liver disease
b) Cardiovascular disease
c) Neurological damage
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation:
Alcohol consumption can lead to various health problems, including liver disease (e.g., cirrhosis), cardiovascular disease (e.g., hypertension), and neurological damage (e.g., cognitive impairments).

13. Which of the following cannot a nurse do in their job?
a) Administer medication
b) Perform surgery
c) Provide patient education
d) Monitor patient vital signs
Answer: b) Perform surgery
Explanation:
Nurses are trained to administer medication, provide patient education, and monitor patient vital signs. However, performing surgery is outside the scope of practice for nurses and is typically the responsibility of surgeons.

14. What is the function of platelets?
a) Transport oxygen
b) Fight infection
c) Clot blood
d) Produce antibodies
Answer: c) Clot blood
Explanation:
Platelets, or thrombocytes, are responsible for blood clotting, which helps stop bleeding by forming clots in blood vessels after an injury.

15. What is the function of the liver?
a) Filter blood
b) Produce insulin
c) Store calcium
d) Pump blood
Answer: a) Filter blood
Explanation:
The liver has many functions, including filtering toxins from the blood, producing bile for digestion, and storing glycogen for energy.

16. When measuring blood pressure in the upper arm, which of the following will result in a higher systolic blood pressure than the correct value?
a) Using a cuff that is too large
b) Using a cuff that is too small
c) Positioning the arm above heart level
d) Measuring after the patient has rested for 5 minutes
Answer: b) Using a cuff that is too small
Explanation:
Using a cuff that is too small can cause the blood pressure reading to be higher than the actual value because the smaller cuff exerts more pressure on the arm, leading to falsely elevated readings.

17. Which organ detects changes in body temperature and issues the command to regulate body temperature?
a) Heart
b) Liver
c) Hypothalamus
d) Kidneys
Answer: c) Hypothalamus
Explanation:
The hypothalamus, located in the brain, acts as the body’s thermostat. It detects changes in body temperature and sends signals to various organs and systems to maintain a stable internal temperature.

18. Which disease causes bloody stool?
a) Diabetes
b) Hypertension
c) Ulcerative colitis
d) Osteoporosis
Answer: c) Ulcerative colitis
Explanation:
Ulcerative colitis is an inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation and ulcers in the digestive tract, leading to symptoms like bloody stool.

19. Which is an inflammatory marker?
a) Hemoglobin
b) C-reactive protein (CRP)
c) Glucose
d) Cholesterol
Answer: b) C-reactive protein (CRP)
Explanation:
C-reactive protein (CRP) is a marker in the blood that indicates inflammation. High levels of CRP can suggest inflammation in the body.

20. What is the appropriate temperature for the towel to touch the skin when wiping the whole body?
a) 20°C (68°F)
b) 30°C (86°F)
c) 40°C (104°F)
d) 50°C (122°F)
Answer: c) 40°C (104°F)
Explanation:
A towel used for wiping the whole body should be warm, typically around 40°C (104°F), to ensure comfort and effectiveness without causing burns or discomfort.

21. Which method of sterilization uses an autoclave?
a) Dry heat
b) Chemical disinfectants
c) Steam under pressure
d) Ultraviolet light
Answer: c) Steam under pressure
Explanation:
An autoclave uses steam under pressure to sterilize medical equipment, ensuring that all microorganisms, including spores, are destroyed.

22. Which of the following is correct about human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection?
a) It can be cured with antibiotics
b) It affects the immune system
c) It is transmitted through casual contact
d) It does not require lifelong treatment
Answer: b) It affects the immune system
Explanation:
HIV targets and weakens the immune system, specifically the CD4 cells (T cells), making it harder for the body to fight infections and diseases. It is not transmitted through casual contact and requires lifelong treatment with antiretroviral therapy.

23. Which of the following is true about medical planning?
a) It is only necessary for critical care patients
b) It involves setting goals and interventions for patient care
c) It is the sole responsibility of the patient’s family
d) It does not need to be documented
Answer: b) It involves setting goals and interventions for patient care
Explanation:
Medical planning involves creating a comprehensive plan for patient care, including setting goals, interventions, and evaluating outcomes. It requires input from healthcare providers, the patient, and their family, and must be documented.

24. Which of the following is an appropriate response by a nurse to an elderly person who is hospitalized?
a) Ignore their complaints to avoid agitation
b) Listen attentively and address their concerns
c) Avoid discussing their medical condition
d) Assume they do not understand medical information
Answer: b) Listen attentively and address their concerns
Explanation:
Nurses should listen attentively to elderly patients, validate their concerns, and provide clear explanations to ensure they feel heard and supported during their hospital stay.

25. Which of the following is correct regarding a normal menstrual cycle with ovulation?
a) It occurs every 45 days
b) The luteal phase is shorter than the follicular phase
c) Ovulation typically occurs around day 14
d) Menstrual bleeding lasts for 10-15 days
Answer: c) Ovulation typically occurs around day 14
Explanation:
In a typical 28-day menstrual cycle, ovulation usually occurs around day 14. The luteal phase (post-ovulation) generally lasts about 14 days, which is approximately equal to or slightly longer than the follicular phase (pre-ovulation). Menstrual bleeding usually lasts between 3 to 7 days.

MCQ of BSc Nursing Entrance Exam (Full Forms)

1. What does the abbreviation AC stand for?
a) After meals
b) Before meals
c) At bedtime
d) As needed
Answer: b) Before meals
Explanation:
AC stands for ante cibum, a Latin term meaning “before meals.

2. What is the meaning of the abbreviation DC?
a) Direct care
b) Discharge or discontinue
c) Daily care
d) Doctor’s consent
Answer: b) Discharge or discontinue
Explanation:
DC can mean either to discontinue a treatment or to discharge a patient from care.

3. What does “ADR” stand for in medical terminology?
a) After discharge
b) Adverse drug reaction
c) At doctor’s request
d) Additional dose required
Answer: b) Adverse drug reaction
Explanation:
ADR refers to any unexpected, harmful reaction experienced following the administration of a drug.

4. What is the meaning of OOB in a patient’s chart?
a) Out of bed
b) Out of breath
c) On observation
d) Only on bedrest
Answer: a) Out of bed
Explanation:
OOB means the patient is allowed or encouraged to get out of bed.

5. What does OR refer to in a hospital setting?
a) Operating room
b) Observation room
c) Outpatient recovery
d) Occupational rehab
Answer: a) Operating room
Explanation:
OR is the abbreviation for the operating room, where surgical procedures are performed.

6. What does WNL stand for?
a) Will need labs
b) Within normal limits
c) Whole nursing list
d) When necessary labs
Answer: b) Within normal limits
Explanation:
WNL means that the findings are within the normal range of results.

7. What does IV stand for?
a) Intravenous
b) Intramuscular
c) Intradermal
d) Intrathecal
Answer: a) Intravenous
Explanation:
IV refers to the administration of substances directly into a vein.

8. What is meant by NPO?
a) No personal orders
b) Normal post-operation
c) Nothing by mouth
d) New patient order
Answer: c) Nothing by mouth
Explanation:
NPO stands for “nil per os,” a Latin term meaning “nothing by mouth,” indicating a patient should not eat or drink.

9. What does PRN stand for in medical orders?
a) Preoperative requirements needed
b) Postoperative routine nursing
c) When necessary
d) Patient requires nourishment
Answer: c) When necessary
Explanation:
PRN is from the Latin “pro re nata,” meaning “as needed” or “when necessary.

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