MCQ on Biotechnology for NEET with Answers:
MCQ on Biotechnology with Answers Pdf:
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MCQ for Biotechnology NEET Questions:
1. Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes?
(a) X phage
(c) Ti plasmid
(d) PBR 322
2. Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four-year-old girl with Adenosine Deaminase deficiency (ADA)?
(a) Gene therapy
(d) Radiation therapy
3. The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by________
(a) Phosphodiester bond
(b) Covalent bond
(c) Disulphide bridges
(d) Hydrogen bonds
4. Which part of the tobacco plant is infected bycMeloidogyne incognita?
5. In Bt Cotton, the Bt toxin present in plant tissue as protoxin is converted into active toxin due to__________
(a) Alkaline PH of the insect gut
(b) Acidic pH of the insect gut
(c) Action of gut microorganism
(d) Presence of conversion factors in the insect gut
6. The first human hormone produced by recombinant DNA technology is______
7. Which of the following Bt crops is being grown in India by the farmers?
8. Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have been developed by the introduction of DNA that is produced in the host cells__________
(a) Both sense and anti-sense RNA
(b) A particular hormone
(c) An antifeedant
(d) A toxic protein
9. The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating__________
(a) Diabetes mellitus
(c) Rheumatoid arthritis
(d) Adenosine Deaminase deficiency
10. Which body of the Government of India regulates GM research and safety of introducing GM organisms for public services________
(a) Bio-safety committee
(b) Indian Council for Agriculture Research
(c) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
(d) Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation.
11. Maximum number of existing transgenic animals of_________
12. Genetic engineering has been successfully used for producing:
(a) Transgenic mice for testing the safety of polio vaccine before use in humans________
(b) Transgenic models for studying new treatments for certain cardiac diseases
(c) Transgenic cow – Rosie which produces high-fat milk for making ghee
(d) Animals like bulls for farm work as they have a superpower
13. Transgenic animals are those which have________
(a) Foreign DNA in some of its cells
(b) Foreign DNA in all its cells
(c) Foreign RNA in all its cells
(d) DNA and RNA both in the cells
14. Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organizations without authorization from the concerned country and its people is called_______
15. The silencing of mRNA has been used in producing transgenic plants resistant to:
(a) Boll worms
(b) White rusts
(d) Bacterial blights
16. What is the criterion for DNA fragment’s movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis?
(a) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves
(b) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves
(c) Positively charged fragments move to the farther end
(d) Negatively charged fragments do not move
17. A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cells is known as___________
(a) Selectable marker
(d) Structural gene
18. Which one of the given options correctly identifies its certain component(s)?
(a) Ori – original restriction enzyme
(b) Rop – Reduced osmotic pressure
(c) Hind I, EcoR I – selectable markers
(d) AmpR, tetR – antibiotic resistance genes
19. There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI. What does ‘co part in it stand for?
20. Given below is a sample of a portion of the DNA strand giving the base sequence on the opposite strands.
What is so special shown in it?
(a) Replication completed
(b) Deletion mutation
(c) Start codon at the 5′ end
(d) Palindromic sequence of base pairs
21. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualized after staining with__________
(a) Bromophenol blue
(c) Aniline blue
(d) Ethidium bromide
22. Which of the following restriction enzymes produces blunt ends?
(a) Eco RV
(b) Sal I
(c) Hind III
(d) Xho I
23. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by me restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid using_____________
(a) Eco RI
(b) Taq polymerase
(d) Polymerase II
24. Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmid?
(b) Independent replication
(c) Circular structure
(d) Small, circular double-stranded
25. Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are_____________
(b) BAC vectors
(c) T/C cloning vector
(d) Expression vector
26. DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by_________
(b) Polymerase Chain Reaction
(d) Restriction mapping
27. Biolistics (Gene gun) is suitable for_____________
(a) Disarming pathogen vectors
(b) Transformation of plant cells
(c) Joining of DNA Vector
(d) DNA Fingerprinting
28. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is____________
(a) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(b) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
(c) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
(d) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
29. The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called__________
(a) Upstream processing
(b) Downstream processing
(d) Postproduction processing
30. Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing?
31. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid using________________
(a) Eco RI
(b) Polymerase III
(c) Taq polymerase
32. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for_________
(a) Purification of the product
(b) Addition of preservatives to the product
(c) Availability of oxygen throughout the Process
(d) Ensures aerobic conditions in the culture vessels
33. The Taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from_______
(a) Thiobacillus ferroxidans
(b) Bacillus subtilis
(c) Pseudomonas putida
(d) Thermus aquaticus
34. Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?
(a) DNase I
(b) Hind II
35. The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of____________
(a) Restriction enzymes
(c) Selectable markers
36. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR?
(a) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in the recipient
(b) It serves as a selectable marker
(c) It is isolated from a virus
(d) It remains active at high temperature
37. Which one of the following is a case of wrong matching?
(a) Somatic hybridization – Fusion of two diverse cells
(b) Vector DNA – Site for tRNA synthesis
(c) Micro propagation-In vitro production of plants in large numbers
(d) Callus – Unorganized mass of cells
38. Agarose extracted from seaweeds is used in_________
(b) Tissue culture
(d) Gel electrophoresis
39. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals that contain insecticidal protein. This protein__________
(a) Binds with epithelial cells of the midgut of the insect pest ultimately killing it
(b) Is coded by several genes including the gene cry
(c) Is activated by the acid pH of the foregut of the insect pest
(d) Does not kill the carrier bacterium, which is itself resistant to its toxin
40. Which one of the following is now being commercially produced by biotechnological procedures_________
41. Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are_________
(a) Long fiber and resistance to aphids
(b) Medium yield, long fiber, and resistance to beetle pests
(c) High yield and production of toxic protein crystals which kill dipteran pests
(d) High yield and resistance to bollworms
42. A new variety of rice was patented by a foreign company, though such varieties have been present in India for a long time. This is related to_________
(a) Lerma Rajo
(c) Sharbati Sonora
43. Who defined Biotechnology?
(a) The European Federation of Biotechnology (EFB)
(b) National Center for Biotechnology Information (NCBI)
(c) National Institutes of Health (NIH)
(d) National Centre for Cell Science (NCCS)
44. The first transgenic plant to be produced is__________
45. _____ is a product of biotechnology.
46. Which bacterium is used in the production of insulin by genetic engineering?
47. Bacteria protect themselves from viruses by fragmenting viral DNA with______________
48. Klenow fragment is derived from___________
(a) DNA Ligase
(b) DNA Pol-I
(c) DNA Pol-II
(d) Reverse Transcriptase
49. Making multiple copies of the desired DNA template is called____________
(c) rDNA technology
(d) genetic engineering
50. Southern blotting is____________
(a) Attachment of probes to DNA fragments
(b) Transfer of DNA fragments from electrophoretic gel to a nitrocellulose sheet
(c) Comparison of DNA fragments to two sources
(d) Transfer of DNA fragments to electrophoretic gel from cellulose membrane
51. PCR technique was invented by______________
(a) Karry Mullis
52. Plasmids are used as cloning vectors for which of the following reasons?
(a) Can be multiplied in culture
(b) Self-replication in bacterial cells
(c) Can be multiplied in laboratories with the help of enzymes
(d) Replicate freely outside bacterial cells
53. RNA interference helps in
(a) Cell proliferation
(c) Cell defense
(d) Cell differentiation
54. ELISA is___________
(a) Using a radiolabelled second antibody
(b) Usage of RBCs
(c) Using complement-mediated cell lysis
(d) Addition of substrate that is converted into a colored end product
55. ______ organism’s plasmid was used for the construction of the first recombinant DNA.
(b) Bacillus subtilis
(c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(d) Salmonella typhimurium
56. A transgenic plant is a__________
(a) Plant with a gene from other plants
(b) Improved plant for a precise agronomic trait
(c) Mutated plant
(d) None of the above
57. Biotechnologies consisting of the use of biological systems (bacteria) for the manufacture, transformation, or degradation of molecules through enzymatic or fermentation processes for industrial purposes, are called___________
(a) Yellow biotechnologies
(b) Blue biotechnologies
(c) Green biotechnologies
(d) White biotechnologies
Answer : D
58. Choose the wrong statement____________
(a) The time required to obtain a plant genetically is about 1 year.
(b) The Bt toxin kills maize larvae and their relatives.
(c) The first transgenic plant was produced in the laboratory in 1984.
(d) In transgenesis, the place of insertion of the transgene on the chromosome cannot be predicted in advance.
59. Choose the wrong statement_________
(a) Hybridization of DNA by a probe requires sequence similarity between the two components.
(b) The circular and linear DNAs, containing N restriction sites for a restriction enzyme, give, respectively, N and N + 1 fragments, once cut by this enzyme.
(c) Cloning of a recombinant DNA means the isolation of cell colonies containing the construct of the specific recombinant DNA.
(d) The EcoRI endonuclease, the cut of which on a circular DNA gives 4 fragments, is in favor of the presence of 4 restriction sites.
60. The first step in cloning a gene is___________
(a) Isolation of DNA from an organism carrying the gene of interest.
(b) Cell culture on agar insertion of a plasmid into a bacterium.
(c) Treatment of plasmids with restriction enzymes.
(d) All of these
61. In biological macromolecules, the term ‘domain’ describes___________
(a) an RNA region located between 5 ‘and 3’ regions untranslated into proteins.
(b) structurally and functionally distinct regions of a protein.
(c) particular regions in the intracellular environment.
(d) a region of DNA located between two exons.
(d) Non of these
62. The primary sequence of a protein cannot contain information concerning____________
(a) Its post-translational modifications and cell addressing
(b) its membrane topology
(c) it’s three-dimensional folding
(d) its transcription rate
63. Mitochondrial proteins__________
(a) are all synthesized in the cytoplasm and then imported into the mitochondria by crossing the pores of the outer membrane.
(b) exhibit an N-terminal sequence constituting the targeting signal to mitochondria and which is cleaved in the matrix by a peptidase signal.
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above
64. Choose the wrong proposition concerning proteins and endoplasmic reticulum____________
(a) the GPI anchor is added in the ER to proteins going to the plasma membrane
(b) during protein glycosylation, mannoses are added exclusively to the RE
(c) the addition of galactose to proteins is never done in the ER
(d) the secreted proteins pass through the lumen of the ER co-translatively
(e) the glycosylation of proteins on serine and threonine is initiated in the ER
65. Choose the wrong proposition concerning the glycosylation of proteins_____________
(a) during N-glycosylation, N-acetylglucosamine is the sugar that immediately attaches to asparagine
(b) O-glycosylation of proteins is characterized by the direct addition of activated carbohydrate residues linked to nucleotides
(c) the carbohydrate units involved in the glycosylation of proteins are associated with 4 amino acids of the protein; Asparagine, Serine, Threonine, and Hydroxylysine
(d) glycosylation decreases protein solubility
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